Scenario 1:
54 year old type 2 diabetic on oral hypoglycaemic treatment (metformin 1g bd, glimepiride 4 mg od) has had a recent HbA1c (click for more information about HbA1c) of 11.4% (101 mmol/mol). His blood pressure is 160/75 mom and has been an average of 160/80 on the previous two visits. His lipid profile shows a cholesterol of 6.4 and triglycerides of 8.6 mmol (fasting sample) with normal U+Es and an ALT that was raised at twice of the normal value. His other medication is a bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg per day and atenolol 50 mg per day. His BMI is 31.2.
Scenario 2:
JW is a 38 year old type 2 diabetic. She has four children and during her last 3 pregnancies has had gestational diabetes requiring insulin therapy. She is now on treatment with metformin 1g bd and pioglitazone 45mg od. She drinks no alcohol. Her most recent blood tests revealed a HbA1C of 8.6% (70 mmol/mol). Her BMI is 29.6.
Gestational diabetes is a signficant risk factor for possible future development of type 2 diabetes. What is the approximate 15 year risk of developing type 2 diabetes if there is a history of gestational diabetes (GPnotebook reference click here for further information):
What would be the next step in management of this lady's type 2 diabetes?
c) in poorly controlled type 2 diabetes which regime (once or twice daily) has been shown to be more effective for achieving glycaemic control?more information click here
d) if converted to an insulin regime, what would be the ideal target range for pre-breakfast BMs?
Other considerations:
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